Jane Austen discussion

I wondered about a few small details, as you often do when you read historicals. Did the bride herself actually sign a bethrothal agreement, which was done in Matters at Mansfield? It sounded a little dramatic to me, but may have actually been the case in real life.

I will assume that the writer researched this. I do know that, historically, there were betrothal contracts, but I'm not sure about Jane Austen's day. There were settlements made, but these were usually agreements between the male of the family or his representatives - as when Mr Gardiner, acting for Mr Bennet sets the terms for the sum to be settled on Lydia.
Engagements, as I understand it, were legally binding on the male - a woman could break an engagement, but if a man did, there could be financial or legal consequences, which is one reason Edward Ferrars cannot break his engagement to Lucy; she can, and does break their engagement.

janetility.com

That brings up a good point and if understood the reader then would have an improved understanding of the those types of situations in Jane's stories. Thanks for thinking of the small details, it brings a bigger picture to the story.