Christian Theological/Philosophical Book Club discussion

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Theological Questions > Grace vs the Law

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message 1: by Robert (new)

Robert Dallmann (robert_dallmann) | 1605 comments When comparing grace with the law, what observations can we make?

Please list some things you notice about grace and the law, for example:

Grace is superior to the law! (Rom. 8:2)


message 2: by Robert (new)

Robert Drumheller | 37 comments Here are my comments concerning the Law.

The Law could only show all mankind that they are guilty before God as there is no defense that can be presented before the Holy God to show that we can be righteous apart from atoning work of Jesus Christ.

19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. 20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin (Romans 3:19-20).

The Christian is dead to the Law because of the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ. Just as a corpse cannot leave the coffin to rob a bank, so a Christian is dead to the Law. The Christian is dead to the Law and alive unto God through the finished work of Jesus Christ.

Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth? 2 For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband. 3 So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man. 4 Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God. 5 For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death. 6 But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter (Romans 7:1-6).

When we place our faith in Jesus alone, we are accounted righteous apart from any Law. By grace are we saved.

For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth (Romans 10:4)


message 3: by Jenny (last edited Apr 22, 2020 08:54AM) (new)

Jenny Sanders | 1 comments The best book I ever read on this was terry Virgo's 'Enjoying God's Grace'. Not sure whether it's still in print, but well worth finding... Ooh, just found it here: https://www.amazon.co.uk/Enjoying-God...
Enjoy!


message 4: by Robert (new)

Robert Dallmann (robert_dallmann) | 1605 comments Hebrews 7:12 - For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.

Romans 3:27 - Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works ? Nay: but by the law of faith .

In the New Covenant, is it the Old Covenant Law that applies?


message 5: by Evangelist (new)

Evangelist Jordan (chosenwithcare) | 2 comments Amen to God's Word


message 6: by Evangelist (new)

Evangelist Jordan (chosenwithcare) | 2 comments Without faith we are lost, amen


message 7: by WILLIAM (new)

WILLIAM George Bryant PHD | 4 comments The law was before the advent of Christ and Grace was during i. e. the old Testament. But after that logically we can't be certain that grace is rule during the administration of the Holy spirit ; which is the authority that Christ left us.
When he departed.


message 8: by Robert (new)

Robert Dallmann (robert_dallmann) | 1605 comments Galatians 3:24-25

24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.

25 But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.


message 9: by Tyrone (new)

Tyrone Wilson | 39 comments WILLIAMw wrote: "The law was before the advent of Christ and Grace was during i. e. the old Testament. But after that logically we can't be certain that grace is rule during the administration of the Holy spirit ; ..."

Actually, I think we can be sure. Romans 3:24 tells us we are justified by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus. Christ's redemption put an end to the Law. God's "grace period", as man typically defines it, started with then.

Your thoughts?


message 10: by WILLIAM (new)

WILLIAM George Bryant PHD | 4 comments The implication is that even though we have grace, we don't have it absolutely, without any effort on our own.


message 11: by Tyrone (new)

Tyrone Wilson | 39 comments WILLIAMw wrote: "The implication is that even though we have grace, we don't have it absolutely, without any effort on our own."

Grace is bestowed solely by the will of the giver; without any effort on the part of the receiver. The receiver cannot, or should not, expect grace because of what he/she does. That implies we earn it. That is something entirely different.


message 12: by WILLIAM (new)

WILLIAM George Bryant PHD | 4 comments I understand and totally agree, but i still hold that it not absolute when one considers the unforgivable sin of blasphemy.


message 13: by WILLIAM (new)

WILLIAM George Bryant PHD | 4 comments The changed priesthood that you mentioned, after the Law is it that of Melkelsidek.?


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